Messages in this thread | | | Date | Tue, 04 Mar 2003 20:37:05 +0100 | From | Ron Arts <> | Subject | Re: PCI init issues |
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Linus Torvalds wrote: > On Tue, 4 Mar 2003, Ivan Kokshaysky wrote: > >>Indeed, looks like only pin 0 (INT_A of that card) is connected. :-( > > > Well, I'd say it looks like the MP table _claims_ that only pin0 is > connected. Remember: the claim was that this machine worked on WinXP. >
Well, I submitted the dmseg and messages because Jamal requested it (same motherboard, same 4-port card and same strange IRQ assignments), but this particular machine is not tested with XP, and I don't think we have that. I think we still have a disk with Win2000 on it. Would that help?
Should have to wait until tomorrow though, I'm on Central European Time, and the machine is located elsewhere.
Ron
> So there are at least two potential reasons for that: > > - The MP table is simply wrong, and WinXP gets the routing information > from somewhere else (ie most likely ACPI) > > - The MP table is right, and only pin0 is connected, and WinXP only uses > pin0 (ie it puts the card in some state where all irqs are shared > across all of the four tulip chips). > > Maybe somebody can come up with other schenarios. > > It would be interesting to hear what "Device Manager" (or whatever it is > called) unde WinXP claims the interrupts are on this machine... Are they > all on irq 48 on XP too? Or has XP gotten magic knowledge somewhere > (ACPI?) and they are on different irq's? > > Linus
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